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# Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing




#### Notation


| notation | description |
| --- | --- |
| $\rx$ | excess return rate over the period |
| $\rx[i]$ | arbitrary asset $i$ |
| $\rx[p]$ | arbitrary portfolio $p$ |
| $\rx[\tan]$ | tangency portfolio |
| $\rx[\mkt]$ | market portfolio |
| $\fbeta[i,j]$ | regression beta of $\rx[i]$ on $\rx[j]$ |



#### Fundamental Theorem

The First Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing guarantees...
- there exists a probability measure, $\mathbb{P}^*$,
- under which the expected return, $\E^*$,
- the expected return of any portfolio\footnote{Of course, this includes portfolios of a single asset, $\r[i]$.} $\r[p]$ equals the risk-free rate:

$$
\begin{aligned}
\rf=& \E^*\left[\r[p]\right]\\
0=& \E^*\left[\rx[p]\right]
\end{aligned}
$$

FINM 33000 covers this in detail.


#### Pricing kernel

The so-called risk-neutral probability measure defining $\E^*$, depends on a change of measure, $\radon$.\footnote{From FINM 33000, you'll recall this is the Radon-Nikodym derivative.}

$$
\begin{aligned}
\E^*\left[x\right] \equiv\, & \E\left[x\radon\right]
\end{aligned}
$$

Thus we can write the Fundamental Theorem as

$$
\begin{aligned}
\rf=& \E\left[\radon\r[p]\right]
\label{eq:sdfpricing}
\end{aligned}
$$


#### A function of $\r[\tan]$

We state without proof that $\radon$ can be written as a linear function of $\r[\tan]$:

$$
\begin{aligned}
\radon = a + b\,\r[\tan]
\end{aligned}
$$

and that this results in\footnote{
We can write $\radon$ as,

$$
\begin{aligned}
\radon =& 1-\left(\r[\tan]-\E\left[\r[\tan]\right]\right)\frac{\E\left[\r[\tan]-\rf\right]}{\var\left[\r[\tan]\right]}\\
\end{aligned}
$$

Then, subbing this into equation \eqref{eq:sdfpricing}, we get the desired equation, \eqref{eq:tanbeta}.
}

$$
\begin{aligned}
\E\left[\r[p]\right]=& \rf + \frac{\cov\left[\r[p],\r[\tan]\right]}{\var\left[\r[\tan]\right]}\E\left[\r[\tan]-\rf\right]\notag\\
\E\left[\rx[p]\right] =& \fbeta[p,\tan]\E\left[\rx[\tan]\right]
\label{eq:tanbeta}
\end{aligned}
$$


#### Outline

- Beta-Factor Representation
- Fundamental Theorem


#### Sketch of proof

To see this from the MV mathematics, recall the following formula.\footnote{We could write this formula in terms of excess return space $\wtx$ or return space, $\wt$. Recall that the tangency portfolio is the one portfolio on both MV and \MV frontiers. That is, $\wtx^{\tan}=\wt^{\tan}$.}

$$
\begin{aligned}
\wtx^{\tan} =& \Sigmamat^{-1}\muxvec\frac{1}{\gamma} \label{eq:wtxtan}\\
\gamma \equiv& \one'\Sigmamat^{-1}\muxvec \notag
\end{aligned}
$$

where $\gamma$ is just a scaling constant to ensure $\wtx^{\tan}$ adds to one, $\left(\wtx^{\tan}\right)'\one=1$.


#### Sketch continued

Using this formula, note that the covariance of any portfolio return, $\r[p]$, with $\r[\tan]$ is,

$$
\begin{aligned}
\cov\left[\rx[p],\rx[\tan]\right] =& \left(\wtx^p\right)'\Sigmamat\wtx^{\tan}\\
=& \left(\wtx^p\right)'\Sigmamat\Sigmamat^{-1}\muxvec\frac{1}{\gamma}\\
=& \left(\wtx^p\right)'\muxvec\frac{1}{\gamma}\\
=& \mu^p\frac{1}{\gamma}
\end{aligned}
$$

Thus,

$$
\begin{aligned}
\mux^p = \cov\left[\rx[p],\rx[\tan]\right]\gamma
\label{eq:tanmv}
\end{aligned}
$$


#### Sketch finished

It is easy to show\footnote{
Using the formula for $\wtx^{\tan}$,

$$
\begin{aligned}
\E\left[\rx[\tan]\right] = \muxvec'\Sigmamat^{-1}\muxvec\gamma
\end{aligned}
$$

And

$$
\begin{aligned}
\var\left[\r[\tan]\right] =& \left(\wtx^{\tan}\right)'\Sigmamat\wtx^{\tan}\\
=& \gamma\muxvec\Sigmamat^{-1}\Sigmamat\Sigmamat^{-1}\muxvec\gamma\\
=& \gamma\muxvec\Sigmamat^{-1}\muxvec\gamma\\
=& \gamma\E\left[\rx[\tan]\right]
\end{aligned}
$$

}

$$
\begin{aligned}
\gamma =  \frac{\E\left[\rx[\tan]\right]}{\var\left[\rx[\tan]\right]}
\end{aligned}
$$

Thus Equation \eqref{eq:tanmv} is equivalent to \eqref{eq:tanbeta}.


#### Factor pricing

We then conclude that all asset returns have a factor-beta notation,

$$
\begin{aligned}
\E\left[\rx[i]\right]=& \; \fbeta[i,\tan]\; \E\left[\rx[\tan]\right]
\label{eq:MV_LFM}
\\[7pt]
\fbeta[i,\tan]\equiv& \; \frac{\cov\left(\rx[i],\rx[\tan]\right)}{\var\left(\rx[\tan]\right)}
\nonumber
\end{aligned}
$$

This will hold in sample exactly, by mathematical identity.


#### Multiple factors

Suppose we have a set of (excess) factor returns, $\rxvec[\facs]$, such that the tangency portfolio is a linear combination of them: (no need for linear combination to sum to one.)

$$
\begin{aligned}
\rx[\tan] =  \boldsymbol{\omega}'\rxvec[\facs]
\end{aligned}
$$

Then,

$$
\begin{aligned}
\E\left[\rx[p]\right] = \left(\fbetavec[p,\facs]\right)'\E\left[\rxvec[\facs]\right]
\end{aligned}
$$

where $\fbetavec[p,\facs]$ is the vector of betas from a multivariate regression of $\rx[p]$ on $\rxvec[\facs]$.


#### Generalization

This relationship is not special to the tangency portfolio; it holds for any arbitrary MV portfolio, $\wt^{\mv}$. 

$$
\begin{aligned}
\E\left[\rx[p]\right] =& \fbeta[p,\mv]\E\left[\rx[\mv]\right]
\end{aligned}
$$

Though this relationship works for any MV portfolio, we focus on the tangency portfolio, without loss of generality.


#### Optimization Conditions

The First Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing holds if---and only if---the mean-variance efficient portfolios are well defined. 

In our MV optimization language, the theorem relies on...

- Convexity of the control space.
- Convexity of the constraint and objective.
- Well-defined solution.


#### Payoff conditions

\textcolor{structure}{Portfolio Formation}

For any two security payoffs $\pay[i]$ and $\pay[j]$, the payoff $a\pay[i]+b\pay[j]$ is also an available security.

\tcolor{Law of One Price} (LOOP)

The pricing function, $\P\left(\cdot\right)$ is linear:

$$
\begin{aligned}
\P(w^i\,\pay[i] + w^j\,\pay[j])= w^i\,\P(\pay[i])+ w^j\,\P(\pay[j])
\end{aligned}
$$

\tcolor{No Arbitrage}

For every payoff $\pay$, if

$$
\begin{aligned}
Pr(\pay\ge 0)=1 \text{ and } Pr(\pay>0)>0 \Longrightarrow \P(\pay)>0.
\end{aligned}
$$

\label{slide:arb}


#### Portfolio implications

Portfolio Formation
\bit
\item
if $\wtx^i, \wtx^j$ are permissible,
\item
$\wtx^k = \ex{\delta}\wtx^i +  (1-\ex{\delta})\wtx^j$ is permissible for any $\ex{\delta}\in(-\infty,\infty)$.
\eit

LOOP
\bit
\item
$\ex{r}^k = \ex{\delta}\ex{r}^i +  (1-\ex{\delta})\ex{r}^j$
\item
More generally, *Suppose $\wtx$ is a vector of portfolio weights.  If $\wtx'\boldsymbol{\pay*=0$ for every state, then $\wtx'\P\left(\boldsymbol{\pay}\right)=0$.}
\eit

No Arbitrage
\bit
\item
Non-trivial, limited-liability, portfolios have well-defined returns. 
\eit


#### Meaning

Portfolio Formation

\bit
\item
Short-selling and leverage are allowed.
\eit

LOOP
\bit
\item
Prices and returns equal the sum of their parts. 
\eit

No arbitrage
\bit
\item
If a portfolio has cash-flow in any contingency, (without incurring liabilities in any contingencies,) then the portfolio must have a positive price.
\eit


#### Outline

- Beta-Factor Representation
- Fundamental Theorem


#### Necessity of risk-free rate?

We derived \eqref{eq:tanbeta} in terms of excess returns, which assumes the existence of a risk-free rate. 

- Without a risk-free rate, the same arguments apply, simply adjusting the equations to have 0 in place of $\rf$.
- In deriving \eqref{eq:tanmv}, the argument holds simply changing $\left(\wtx^{\tan}, \muxvec,\rx\right)$ to $\left(\wt^{\tan}, \muvec, \r\right)$.


#### Modeling vs Estimation

This factor-beta notation seems to give us a model for all mean returns. But it depends on knowing $\rx[\tan]$ via

- a theoretical model for $\rx[\tan]$.
- direct empirical estimation of $\rx[\tan]$.

One might consider using equation \eqref{eq:wtxtan}, for direct estimation, but this does not work in practice.


#### Circularity in direct estimation

Suppose we want to use the factor pricing model to estimate $\mu^i$.
- The estimation of $\rx[\tan]$ via Equation \eqref{eq:wtxtan} requires $\muvec$.

$$
\begin{aligned}
\wtx^{\tan} = \covmat^{-1}\muvec\frac{1}{\phi}
\end{aligned}
$$

- But $\wtx^{\tan}$ should consider all available assets, meaning $\muvec$ should  includes $\mu^i$ itself!
- So this cannot be a way to estimate $\mu^i$.


#### Imprecision in direct estimaiton

Suppose we instead estimate $\rx[\tan]$ from one set of assets and then use it to estimate the mean return for some other asset, $i$.

- Still, direct estimation does not work well.
- We will be ignoring the weight of $\wtx^{\tan}$ that should be in $i$.
- Worse, the poor conditioning of $\covmat$ means that inverting it will greatly magnify the (substantial!) estimation errors in $\muvec$.

Thus, it is not practical to statistically extract an \MV portfolio to use in the linear pricing formula above.


#### Linear Factor Pricing Models

**\textcolor{structure**{Linear factor pricing models (LFPM)}} are assertions about the identity of the tangency portfolio.

- This avoids the problems of direct estimation.
- But it relies on the assumption about the identity of the tangency portfolio (or some other mean-variance portfolio.)


#### Allocation vs Pricing

The theory does not assume investors allocate to this assumed MV portfolio.

- It assumes the portfolio is MV for the purposes of pricing expected returns.
- If we additionally assume investors prefer MV portfolios, then this portfolio will both price securities and be the equilibrium allocation.
